My wife inherited a traditional IRA, subject to RMD's and account being drained in 10 years, its not a ton of money like 27K and we really dont need it, we are both 55 and my question was I have it invested in 60 percent VOO 30 percent SCHG and 10 percent cash sweep, my thinking was that I dont want to have to sell shares in a down market, so I would keep 2 RMDs liquid, does that seem like a logical strategy with respect to the RMD's not my allocation. I am not looking for investment allocation advice just about the RMD strategy